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Man may have a (limited) freewill when it comes to daily decisions, but NOT regarding Salvation. Am I saved by my will? or Yahweh's will? Am I saved by Yahweh? or myself?
Yahushua (Jesus) exercised the will of His Father (John 6:38; also Matthew 26:39; John 8:28) Are we so different that we can exercise our OWN will forever in opposition to the will of Yahweh?
Just as we had no choice in the separation of all men from Yahweh by one man [Adam], we likewise have no choice in the salvation of all men by one Man [Jesus the Messiah].
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the favour of יהוה, and the gift by favour, which is by one man, Yahushua the Messiah, hath abounded unto many. And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of favour and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Yahushua the Messiah.) Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
1 Corinthians 15:22
For as in Adam all die, even so in the Messiah shall all be made alive.
This is a direct mathematical equation. "All (dead in Adam) = All (alive in the Son)". It can't be misinterpreted to mean "All (dead in the Son) = A remnant (alive in the Son)". Most Christians incorrectly teach that only a remnant (a few) will be saved. The truth is that there is a remnant and that remnant will go to Heaven. The majority will NOT go to Heaven, but that doesn't mean that ALL won't eventually be "made alive" (restored) in the New Jerusalem, on Earth, in future ages, as promised in this verse. Otherwise, this verse will have to be either thrown away as false, or so twisted to become meaningless. (the how is explained in Three Harvests of Redemption and Is Hell Eternal?)
For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost.
Question, aren't the unbelievers even more lost than the elect? This verse in Matthew says that He came to save the "lost". Is that less than the all that was lost by Adam's sin?
1 Timothy 2:4-6
Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. For there is one Elohim, and one mediator between Elohim and men, the man Yahushua the Messiah; Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time. (note, it doesn't happen all at once, but in due time.)
But these verses must be ONLY referring to believers (the elect). Oh? then how can we explain the last part of this text?
1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living Elohim, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe. (meaning "all men" includes also unbelievers who are saved, but not in their unbelief. Unbelief will die. Eventually ALL will KNOW. Then they will be saved, each in their own time.)
For a small moment have I forsaken thee; but with great mercies will I gather thee.
1 John 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Is it possible that Adam's one transgression could be more successful (in a bad way) than the Messiah's one righteous act (in a good way)?
NOT AT ALL!