If the Jewish Pharisees participated in Conspiracy #1, who helped Satan in Conspiracy #2? And how did it start?

We saw how Yahushua (Jesus) completely unmasked the Pharisees, their father Satan and their Conspiracy #1.

He revealed Yahweh as the true name of the Father. He healed and performed miracles in the name of His Father, Yahweh, and everything He said and did were in that name. The disciples came to know, love and trust Yahweh. They also performed miracles in His name.

The conspiracy was busted - down but not out.

Again, current events aided Satan. Because of the nation's rejection and killing of the Messiah, Yahweh removed His protection (see Daniel 9:24,26). In 70 C.E., Jerusalem and its Temple were destroyed and the last remnants of Jewish political independence came to an end. The Hebrew language was no longer in daily use.

The final "nail" was an uprising referred to as the Bar Kochba revolt (ended in 135 C.E.). The few remaining Jews were desperate for a Redeemer and Messiah. They grasped at the leader of this revolt, Bar Kochba and were convinced that he was the promised Messiah. Putting down this revolt brought about the complete Roman annihilation of the Judaean state, the exile or murder of most of the Jewish population, and the repopulation of Judaea-Galilee with foreign peoples—Hebrew officially ceased to be the language of Judaea.

All this caused a tremendous anti-Jewish sentiment. Anything considered Jewish was to be avoided. This included the 7th day sabbath (changed from the seventh day to Sunday by the apostate protestant church and to Saturday by the few remaining, defeated Jews) and a new conspiracy to hide and change Yahweh's Sacred Name. "Yahweh" was considered to be a Jewish name and the Jews were despised. A more universal name was needed.

The Christian church around this time, was apostatizing and, under the influence of Satan revived the doctrine of the ineffable name. This entered into the congregation little by little and Paul tells us that the apostasy was already working in his time (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4,7).

The early assemblies following the Messiah's teaching believed in speaking the sacred name. But during that period the Pharisaic elements which had joined these assemblies spread their own interpretation. By the second century A.D. many of those calling themselves Christians had become adherents to the “ineffable name” doctrine of their Jewish brothers. It became official Christian dogma at the beginning of the fourth century when the Roman Church was founded under Constantine. From this point on it was considered “Jewish” to use the sacred name (despite the fact that the Jews forbade its use).

“In the accurate exemplars” of the Greek LXX (Septuagint) up until the mid-third century C.E., as the ancient Christian theologian Origen informs us, “the (sacred) name is set in Hebrew characters, not of the present day, but of very ancient times” (on Ps. 2:2). His statement is later supported by Jerome at the beginning of the fifth century C.E. (Pro. Gal., Preaf. in Libr. Sam. et Mal.). These statements show that it was only in lesser editions of the Greek text that one could find the sacred name absent. Yet these best copies had come from an earlier era, when the sacred name was still used among the early assemblies following the messiah. By the end of the fourth century C.E. the neglect in pronouncing the sacred name was so widespread that, according to Jerome (384 C.E.), because of the similarity of the Aramaic Hebrew letters יהוה with the Greek letters ΠΙΠΙ , the name was assumed by many Christians to be a Greek word. He writes, not only was the tetragrammaton considered “ineffable,” but “certain ignorant ones, because of the similarity of characters, when they would find them in Greek books, were accustomed to pronounce Pi-Pi” (Jerome, Ep. 25, Ad Mar.).

Ironically, scholars in these centuries knew the correct pronunciation (e.g. Origen, Joan. ii; Jerome, Brev. Pss., Ps. VIII; Epiphanius, 40:5, var. lect., Iaue; Theodoret, Quaest. in Exod., 15, and Haer. Fab. Com., 5:3; Clement, Strom., 5:6). They also knew that the Jews of this period forbade its use. Jerome, for example, states that among the Hebrews (Jews) it was “not to be spoken” and was “ineffable” (Brev. Pss., Ps. VIII). Theodoret, likewise, states that the Jews were not allowed to utter it (Haereti. Fab. Com., 5:3). Then these Christians accept this view outright. Jerome, for example, concludes “it is ineffable” (Ep. 25, Ad Mar.).

The official stand of the Roman Church after the time of Constantine (324–337 C.E.), who for all intents and purposes established his form of Christianity as the official religion of the Roman empire, is best illustrated by the texts composed by Origen (mid-third century C.E.) and Jerome, early fifth century C.E. In Origen’s Hexapla the Greek versions produced by Aquila, Symmachus, and the LXX (Septuagint) all represented the Aramaic-Hebrew יהוה (Yahweh) with ΠΙΠΙ (HGCG, pp. 6–11). Yet Jerome, who authored the Latin Vulgate version—which was translated directly from the Hebrew and which became the authorized version used by the Roman Catholic Church— substituted the sacred name throughout with the Latin word Dominus (Lord). All official Greek and Latin texts of Scriptures developed after Jerome’s time followed his lead. Few have thought to question it since. quoted from "The Sacred Name YHWH"

All of the original Aramaic texts authored by the apostles were destroyed because they contained the Holy name "Yahweh". This second conspiracy was nearly universal - complete.